Blogging the Qur’an: Suras 61, “Battle Array,” and 62, “The Congregation”

Jesus%20slave%20of%20Allah.jpg
Jesus gives "glad tidings of a messenger to come after me, whose name shall be Ahmad"

About the Medinan sura 61 Abdullah bin Salam, one of the Companions of Muhammad, tells this story: “We asked, ‘Who among us should go to the Messenger and ask him about the dearest actions to Allah?’ None among us volunteered. The Messenger sent a man to us and that man gathered us and recited this Surah, Surat As-Saff, in its entirety.”

So what are among the “dearest actions to Allah”? Allah “loves those who fight in His Cause in battle array” (v. 4). He dislikes those believers who say they have done things they didn’t do. Ibn Kathir explains: “Some said that it was revealed about the gravity of fighting in battle, when one says that he fought and endured the battle, even though he did not do so. Qatadah and Ad-Dahhak said that this Ayah [verse] was sent down to admonish some people who used to say that they killed, fought, stabbed, and did such and such during battle, even though they did not do any of it.”

Allah reminds these phonies that Moses warned his people not to annoy him, since they knew he was Allah’s messenger. But once they did, Allah let them go astray (v. 5). He also reminds them that Jesus came to tell the Jews that his message confirmed that of the Torah, and that he was the precursor of a messenger who would come after him, whose name would be Ahmad. But the people would dismiss Jesus’ miracles as “sorcery” (v. 6) – recalling their dismissal of Moses (28:36) and Muhammad (28:48).

“Ahmad” means “the Most Praised One,” and it is etymologically related to Muhammad, which means “Praised One.” Pickthall drives the connection home by translating “Ahmad” simply as “Praised One.” And Muslims universally understand the verse as depicting Jesus predicting the coming of Muhammad.

Muslims contend that this prophecy is the uncorrupted version of the words of Jesus that survive in corrupted form in John 14:16-17, where Jesus says: “And I will pray the Father, and he will give you another Counselor, to be with you for ever, even the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees him nor knows him; you know him, for he dwells with you, and will be in you.”

“Counselor” here is παρακλητος, Paracletos or Paraclete. Some Islamic apologists have claimed that this is a corruption of περικλυτος, Periclytos, which means “famous” or “renowned,” i.e., “Praised One.” However, there is no textual evidence whatsoever for this: no manuscripts of the New Testament exist that use the word περικλυτος in this place. Nor is it likely that the two words might have been confused. That kind of confusion may be theoretically possible in Arabic, which does not write vowels and hence would present two words with identical consonant structures. But Greek does write vowels, and so the words would never in Greek have appeared as even close to identical.

Then Allah excoriates the man who “invents falsehood against Allah, even as he is being invited to Islam” (v. 7) – that is, says Ibn Kathir, “none is more unjust than he who lies about Allah and calls upon rivals and associates partners with Him, even while he is being invited to Tawhid [the divine unity] and sincerely worshipping Him.” They want to extinguish Allah’s light and hate his religion (v. 9), but, in the words of the Tafsir al-Jalalayn, “it is He Who has sent His Messenger with the guidance and the religion of truth, that He may make it prevail, that He may raise it over all other religions, over all the religions which oppose it, though the disbelievers be averse to this.”

Allah will admit the believers to Paradise (v. 12) and grant them victory (v. 13). One of the Jews believed in Jesus and some didn’t – Allah granted victory to those who did (v. 14). This is referring, of course, to Jesus the prophet of Islam. In explaining this verse, Ibn Kathir outlines the Muslim view of both Jews and Christians. The Jews “rejected what ‘Isa brought them, denied his prophethood and invented terrible lies about him and his mother. They are the Jews, may Allah curse them until the Day of Judgment.” The Christians, meanwhile, “exaggerated over ‘Isa, until they elevated him to more than the level of prophethood that Allah gave him. They divided into sects and factions, some saying that ‘Isa was the son of Allah, while others said that he was one in a trinity, and this is why they invoke the father, the son and the holy ghost! Some of them said that `Isa was Allah…”

The Medinan sura 62 features the claim that Muhammad was illiterate (v. 2). Islamic apologists refer frequently to this claim in order to throw into sharp relief what they consider to be the miraculous character of the Qur’an. This sublime book of poetry, they say, could not have been written by any ordinary man — and certainly not by one who was illiterate.

However, this claim has no actual Qur’anic support at all. As Daniel Ali has pointed out, Islamic commentators base their claims on the Arabic word ome, which they translate as “illiterate.” This is one meaning of the word. However, it has another meaning that has nothing to do with reading or writing. The Qur’an’s use of the word establishes that this meaning is the one it is using. V. 2 says, “It is He that sent forth among the omeyeen [the plural of ome] an apostle of their own....” This same word is repeated in many other places in the Koran, including 2:78, 3:20, 3:75, and 7:157-158. Almost all Muslim scholars interpret the word omeyeen in these passages as meaning “illiterate.”

Yet if the word omeyeen refers to illiteracy, v. 2 would be saying that Allah sent forth to all illiterates one of their own. The unlikelihood of this is reinforce by the fact that in classical Arabic, omeyeen never referred to illiterates or to illiteracy. It refers to non-Jewish people: v. 2 is saying that Allah has sent a gentile apostle to the gentiles. Omeyeen is an adjectival form of the Arabic noun for gentiles, and not all gentiles were illiterate during the time of Muhammad.

The rest of the sura contains the usual excoriations of unbelievers, plus a reminder to respond to the Call to Prayer on Friday (vv. 9-11). There is a chilling statement: “Say: ‘O ye that stand on Judaism! If ye think that ye are friends to Allah, to the exclusion of other men, then express your desire for death, if ye are truthful!” (v. 6). This has become a staple theme of contemporary jihadism: not long after 9/11, an Afghani jihadist declared: “The Americans lead lavish lives and they are afraid of death. We are not afraid of death. The Americans love Pepsi Cola, we love death.” Such love, according to this verse, is a sign of friendship with Allah.

(Here you can find links to all the earlier “Blogging the Qur’an” segments. Here is a good Arabic Qur’an, with English translations available; here are two popular Muslim translations, those of Abdullah Yusuf Ali and Mohammed Marmaduke Pickthall, along with a third by M. H. Shakir. Here is another popular translation, that of Muhammad Asad. And here is an omnibus of ten Qur’an translations.)

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33 Comments

"Jesus is the slave of allah" Photo above.

That cannot be true after all, didn't allah tempted Jesus three times in the wilderness and Jesus said "Begone, Satan! For it is written, 'You shall worship the Lord your God, and serve Him only. (Matthew 4:10)"

It is my opinion that allah and satan are interchangeable words.

Nothing makes me hate Islam more than that "Jesus is Allah's slave" crap.

I hate Islam. For many good reasons.

It is disgusting that muslims use Jesus against both Christians and Jews and that gives them their right to enslave all non-Muslims. Winged_Hussar you are right to say allah and satan are one and the same.

Can I go outside and hold up sign's that say "Mohammed is a false prophet and the Koran is a Hate/Mass-Murder Manual?"

Winged_Hussar: "It is my opinion that allah and satan are interchangeable words."

Arabic speaking Christians and Jews have been using the term "Allah" for over a thousand years to mean a short version of "al elah", which means "the god" or "God" in English.

So, I hope people use the term "the god of Islam" instead of "Allah", especially in critical statements like this.

I tried to find out if pre-Islam Arabian Jews and Christian used the term Allah or not, but I couldn't find any definitive and reliable answer. I hope there will be a blog post on the subject if an answer is known.

Arabic speaking Christians and Jews have been using the term "Allah" for over a thousand years to mean a short version of "al elah", which means "the god" or "God" in English.

So, I hope people use the term "the god of Islam" instead of "Allah", especially in critical statements like this.

I tried to find out if pre-Islam Arabian Jews and Christian used the term Allah or not, but I couldn't find any definitive and reliable answer. I hope there will be a blog post on the subject if an answer is known.

Posted by: Joe Isaac at November 2, 2008 9:04 AM

Is this true? Should we switch to "god of Islam" from "Allah?"

IMO, I doubt that pre-Islam Jews/Christians used "Allah" as "al-elah" was the pagan moon deity that Mo knew from birth. Pagan.

I hope RS or Raymond will enlighten.

From Blog...” The Christians, meanwhile, “exaggerated over ‘Isa, until they elevated him to more than the level of prophethood that Allah gave him.

This is similar to a modern argument used by some atheists...'Jesus, may have existed, but he was just an exceptional man, and not 'The Son of God'.
And that Christians have 'exaggerated' over him, and 'elevated' him to a higher level than he deserves...

Others may argue that Jesus never existed at all, and was the invention of a greedy and power hungry priesthood...

I won't argue the existence or non existence of Jesus, but I will say that power hungry priest-hoods, both Mohammadan and infidel, 'have' used his stature for personal gain...

"The rest of the sura contains the usual excoriations of unbelievers, plus a reminder to respond to the Call to Prayer on Friday (vv. 9-11)"

How did Friday become their sabbath day? I know from my own reading of pro-Islam web sites that Muslims can pretty much ignore the "pray five times a day" rule whenever they feel like it, but Fridays do seem to be special since that's when Muslims seem to target and kill other Muslims the most frequently. Mosques during the height of Friday prayers make great targets.

Which is all the proof I need to know that Muslims target people. Their goal isn't to just terrorize the population, it's to kill as many people as they can. Attacking symbols is a nice by-product.

Mr. Spencer - Any plans to make the entire series available in book form or a downloadable compilation?

I would love to have this to read offline without printing/saving individual web pages...

Mr. Spencer-

You state: Muslims contend that this prophecy is the uncorrupted version of the words of Jesus that survive in corrupted form in John 14:16-17, where Jesus says…

I am reading Asad’s translation and in the notes on this verse, he states that the original Aramaic Gospels have been lost. I have 2 questions.

1. Were not the original Gospels written in Greek?

I imagine that this is the “corruption” of the original texts that we keep coming across.

Asad invokes the now apocryphal Gospel of St. Barnabas as evidence that Jesus spoke of the coming of Muhammad. He states that it was in use until the year 496 AD.

2. Can you comment on that? I am not familiar with that text.

Thank you, for another informative week.

"V. 2 says, “It is He that sent forth among the omeyeen [the plural of ome] an apostle of their own....”

This 'gentile' interpretation just doesn't ring true.

Could omeyeen simply mean one who is not formally educated, as opposed to 'illiterate'?

Robert, why does sura 61 have the same name as sura 37?

No.

Jesus is not the slave of allah, Jesus is King of Kings and Lord of Lords.

1 Timothy 6:14-16:
"14) to keep this command without spot or blame until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ, 15) which God will bring about in his own time—God, the blessed and only Ruler, the King of kings and Lord of lords, 16) who alone is immortal and who lives in unapproachable light, whom no one has seen or can see. To him be honor and might forever. Amen."

http://www.allaboutjesuschrist.org/king-of-kings-faq.htm

Asad invokes the now apocryphal Gospel of St. Barnabas as evidence that Jesus spoke of the coming of Muhammad.
dentalque l believe Jesus also said there would be those coming after him that would be false prophets
and that l believe would be muhammad.

"So what are among the “dearest actions to Allah”?"

After examining 62 suras, I think I can answer that question: An action dearest to Allah is one that gives Muhammad whatever he wanted.

No.

Jesus is not the slave of allah, Jesus is King of Kings and Lord of Lords. --champ

Of course. Goes without saying. But, I'm glad you said it!

Best Wishes, champ, and hope you're doing great!

The Rock solid testimony of Jesus was established hundreds of years prior to the formation of Islam, so Islamic commentary about Jesus outside of the bible is about as noteworthy as the clump of toilet paper I just flushed. This religion has been playing the role of a parasite for over a thousand years to both Jewish & Christian tradition. Every time you hear a Muslim say "I believe the prophets & Jesus"...expect next a side step disco denial song & dance of the testimony that established their legacy to begin with, replaced with a oddball Islamic twist.

I learned something from a number of Arab Christians. Many of them don't use Allah, but as a poster has said above, Al Elah, instead. And Ar-Rab' (The Lord) Jesus in the Koran is Isa, but in the Arabic New Testament it is Yasu'a. The reason is this: Isa of the Koran is not the same as Yasu'a, which has its roots in the Hebrew for Yeshua, meaning God Saves. Isa has no connection to the Hebrew, and is meaningless. While this might not mean anything to us in the west, it does mean something of a great deal in Muslim societies. And while Christians have been using Allah for centuries, I have a hard time connecting the Allah of Judaism or Christianity to the Allah of Islam. They are so different in nature.

I tried to find out if pre-Islam Arabian Jews and Christian used the term Allah or not, but I couldn't find any definitive and reliable answer.

I believe they did, but cannot at the moment recall my source for this. I will look around for it asap.

Cordially
Robert Spencer

Jaynie59:

How did Friday become their sabbath day?

It isn't really a Sabbath day, because it is not a day of rest. But it is the day on which a sermon is preached at the mosque, unlike other days. So it is more important to be at the mosque on Friday than on other days. Why Friday? I expect because of this very verse, 62:9.

Cordially
Robert Spencer

DJM:

Mr. Spencer - Any plans to make the entire series available in book form or a downloadable compilation?

I hope so.

The immediate plan is to use the Blogging the Qur'an series as research material for a book that I have already contracted to write for Regnery Publishing next year: The Infidel's Guide to the Koran. This will be a thematically arranged tour, rather than a chapter-by-chapter survey, of the Qur'an. (They want me to spell it Koran, so I will in that book.)

After that, I hope sometime to interest another publisher in publishing the Qur'an blog itself, as a chapter-by-chapter commentary.

Cordially
Robert Spencer

dentalque:

1. Were not the original Gospels written in Greek?

Yes, but particularly with the Gospel of Matthew, if I recall correctly, scholars believe that some of the Greek locutions indicate that some or all of the book was translated from Aramaic.

As you have seen, some Islamic apologists have seized on this to claim that the Aramaic texts were the original, uncorrupted version of the Gospel -- not Gospels, as it was just one book originally, they say. This Aramaic original, goes this story, showed Jesus as a prophet, not the Son of God, and showed that he taught Islam. It was suppressed, they say, in favor of the corrupted Greek versions that teach Christian, rather than Islamic, theology.

The only problem with this is that there are no Aramaic texts. Their very existence is just a scholarly postulate. So Islamic apologists and anyone else can imagine them saying whatever they want them to say.

Asad invokes the now apocryphal Gospel of St. Barnabas as evidence that Jesus spoke of the coming of Muhammad. He states that it was in use until the year 496 AD.

2. Can you comment on that? I am not familiar with that text.

That is complete fantasy. The Gospel of Barnabas is an Islamic text, depicting Jesus as a Muslim prophet. It was completely unknown before the late 1500's, and is fairly obviously a forgery written by a Muslim in order to give support to the Islamic claim that the real Jesus was a prophet of Islam.

Cordially
Robert Spencer

locomotivebreath1901:

"V. 2 says, “It is He that sent forth among the omeyeen [the plural of ome] an apostle of their own....”

This 'gentile' interpretation just doesn't ring true.

I don't see why not. It is a meaning of the word, and it helps the passage make better sense. Also, it makes sense in light of Muhammad's attempt to present himself as a prophet in the line of the Jewish prophets. The Jews apparently rebuffed him by pointing out that it would be strange for a non-Jew to be a Jewish prophet. The obvious response from Muhammad would then be that he was sent from the Gentiles and to the Gentiles.

Could omeyeen simply mean one who is not formally educated, as opposed to 'illiterate'?

I don't think so. Muslims make a great deal of Muhammad's illiteracy, as proof of the miraculous character of the Qur'an's sublime poetry.

Cordially
Robert Spencer

Ben:

Robert, why does sura 61 have the same name as sura 37?

Sura 37 is named As-Saaffat. Sura 61 is named As-Saff. As-Saaffat is more like "Those arranged in ranks," and As-Saff is just "Ranks."

I will change one now to avoid confusion.

Cordially
Robert Spencer

ZenaWarriorPrincess:

Asad invokes the now apocryphal Gospel of St. Barnabas as evidence that Jesus spoke of the coming of Muhammad.

It is not "now" apocryphal. It was always apocryphal, ever since it was written sometime in the 16th century. The Gospel of Barnabas was never recognized as a canonical Gospel by any Christian group or sect at any time in any place.

Cordially
Robert Spencer

Jewel Atkins:

I learned something from a number of Arab Christians. Many of them don't use Allah, but as a poster has said above, Al Elah, instead.

This is a distinction without much of a difference. In fact, the Copts tend to avoid using the word "Allah," preferring "Rab," Lord, instead. Other Arabic-speaking Christian generally use "Allah."

Cordially
Robert Spencer

ZenaWarriorPrincess at November 2, 2008 11:52 AM

Thanks. I tend to agree with you.

jihadwatch at November 2, 2008 4:00 PM

Thanks again, I can't wait to read the new book.
You rock!

I have never heard of of the "Gospel of St. Barnabas". There are Gnostic Gospels, but nothing with this title.

In my opinion, the author (or for that matter, the authors) of the Qur'an were familiar with Christian, Jewish and pagan mythology. The Qur'an is derived from these sources, not the only religion to borrow from other sources, but Islam is unlike any over religion in that it mandates the killing of unbelievers unless they either convert or accept dhimmitude.

Here's what one might think or guess or want to entertain as a thought, just for fun: Ephraim of Edessa is going to turn out to be a key figure, if an unintentional one, in the development of early Islam. You heard it here first.

Hi Guys,

a lot of people think the word "allah" means some special god that belong to islam! all it means is "god" so when you see that image "jesus slave of allah" it really does not mean the literal meaning of slave! all human beings in islam are slaves of allah including mohamad! what this means; we as humans need to obey god's word! that's all.

also regarding wars in quran and violence, I thin if you read the old testament and the torah, its full of violence too! the difference is christians and jews rarely mention those chapters of the bible that were written about stoning whom commit adultery, killing...etc, basically they are smooth about it! while the quran says it as it is:)

I think all religions have a great purpose and they all preach for love and peace in their own ways! but we humans tend to interpret it they it fits our goals!

I find this truly shocking that Muslims can say such things about Jesus.......and get away with it, burn flags, embassies etc. if they're insulted.

The New Testament is primarily a Jewish text, it was probaly written in Aramaic, as you say, but tradition is to write in Hebrew, except for Daniel, this interested me: I'm looking at the Gospel of Matthew 1:21 "....you are to name him *Jesus* BECAUSE he will *save* his people from their sins" ...the because implies a word play, a common Hebrew device. Now, this doesn't quite work in the Greek either, which sounds like "Iesous (Jesus) sesei? (save) it does however work in the Hebrew: "Yeshua (Jesus) ki hoo yooshia" (save) which would make sense as the immediate followers would want a Hebrew copy to pass round all Jews in the diaspora in the common language.

It's amazing how when Jesus says difficult things e.g. John 6:66 and some disciples stop following him (instead of just asking him to explain) Jesus never goes and beheads them for choosing to go away. How do Muslims follow a prophet who insists on killing an apostate? Muslims go back to John 6:66 and hear what Peter says: it;s the point of the Scriptures - the message of eternal life.

I;m no expert, certainly not in languages, I've just got the texts in different languages so I can compare and contrast them, I thought you may be interested too.

Thanks again, Mr Spencer - have ordered your new book, can't wait to read it.

I really don't get it? why would Muslims just pluck out the one word 'parakletos' and substitute praised one, meaning a future one? It just denies common sense. There were originally no chapter and verse and this discourse clearly goes onto chapter John 15:26

'When the Advocate (Parakeltos) comes, whom I (Jesus) will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth who comes from the Father, he will testify on MY (Jesus') behalf'

NOT Mohammed's behalf.

And notice John 14:26 But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit whom THE FATHER will send in my name....'

in John 15:26 I (Jesus) send, and in 14:26 the Father sends; this really bent my brain, until I checked out the similarities of speech in all the words the Angel of the LRD in the TNK when he speaks as the Almighty. Yes, Jesus is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow, but tomorrow he will go back to being Yeshua, but it really doesn;t matter.

"Muslims contend that this prophecy is the uncorrupted version of the words of Jesus that survive in corrupted form in John 14:16-17, where Jesus says: “And I will pray the Father, and he will give you another Counselor, to be with you for ever, even the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees him nor knows him; you know him, for he dwells with you, and will be in you.”"

It seems to me that claiming this verse for Muhammad is blasphemy against the Holy Spirit, which according to Jesus in Matthew 12:30-32 is the one and only unforgivable sin. That makes me kinda sad for all those sincere, moderate Muslims who believe with all their hearts that they're worshipping the God of truth.







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