Question: Was four years of war, followed by eight years of occupation of Japan and the destruction of Japan’s native religion (by compelling the Emperor to go on the radio and tell the Japanese that he wasn’t divine) a proportionate response to the bombing of Pearl Harbor? Over 3,000 people were killed at Pearl Harbor. Wouldn’t the bombing of a Japanese port, the sinking of some Japanese ships and the destruction of Japanese planes, resulting in the deaths of a few thousand Japanese, have been the only proportionate response? And so wasn’t the Pacific theater of World War II a wildly disproportionate response on the part of the Allies?
Also, have you ever noticed that the only state in the world that is ever guilty of a disproportionate response to violent attacks from its enemies is Israel?